Could There Be A Possible Justification?

I'm scratching my head trying to figure out how the Federal government has the right to dictate to a private manufacturer what state they are allowed to operate a factory within. I'm practically fracturing my skull when I learn the stated rationale given by the Feds is they prefer the laws (and presumably the lawmakers writing those laws) of one state more than those in the other state.

I mean I realize this is the sort of thing Stalin could have mandated, but I thought we were not going there.